Why did God tell Hosea to marry a prostitute (Hosea 1:2)? Was Gomer a prostitute before Hosea married her, or did she only become one after they married? What was God's purpose in having Hosea marry an immoral woman?

Links:

Why did God tell Hosea to marry a prostitute (Hosea 1:2)? - https://www.gotquestions.org/Hosea-marry-prostitute.html

Who was Hosea in the Bible? - https://www.gotquestions.org/Hosea-in-the-Bible.html

Who was Gomer in the Bible? - https://www.gotquestions.org/Gomer-in-the-Bible.html

---

https://podcast.gotquestions.org

GotQuestions.org Podcast subscription options:

Apple - https://podcasts.apple.com/us/podcast/gotquestions-org-podcast/id1562343568

Google - https://podcasts.google.com/feed/aHR0cHM6Ly9wb2RjYXN0LmdvdHF1ZXN0aW9ucy5vcmcvZ290cXVlc3Rpb25zLXBvZGNhc3QueG1s

Spotify - https://open.spotify.com/show/3lVjgxU3wIPeLbJJgadsEG

Amazon - https://music.amazon.com/podcasts/ab8b4b40-c6d1-44e9-942e-01c1363b0178/gotquestions-org-podcast

IHeartRadio - https://iheart.com/podcast/81148901/

Disclaimer: The views expressed by guests on our podcast do not necessarily reflect the views of Got Questions Ministries. Us having a guest on our podcast should not be interpreted as an endorsement of everything the individual says on the show or has ever said elsewhere. Please use biblically-informed discernment in evaluating what is said on our podcast.