" 8 Philip said unto Him, “Lord, show us the Father, and it sufficeth us.” 9 Jesus said unto him, “Have I been so long a time with you, and yet hast thou not known Me, Philip? He that hath seen Me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, ‘Show us the Father’? 10 Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak unto you I speak not of Myself; but the Father that dwelleth in Me, He doeth the works. " (John 14:8-10, KJ21)

Was Jesus actually claiming to be the Father robed in the flesh in this passage? Or was He merely claiming to be the true revealer of the Father (John 1:18 cf. Col. 1:15, Heb. 1:3)?

If Jesus was saying to see Him is to literally see the Father, that would contradict John 5:37 and 6:46. Jesus is not talking about physical sight. It's likely the word "seen" in John 14:9 (horaō) is taken in the sense of perceive or understand (or spiritual sight). Through Christ we know and understand who the Father really is because He's the way (v.6) and revelation of the Father (v.7 cf. 1:18).

Plus the terminology "I am in the Father, and the Father is in Me" (v.10) shows their personal distinction yet equal ground.

John 14:10 video:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=l27rqeIETmY