Did Jesus agree with a friendly unitarian Jew on the existence of God in Mark 12:28ff? Is the Shema alone the greatest commandment and in fact teaches a unipersonal, unitarian YHWH?

Or was this Jew outside the kingdom of God and needed to be born again? Were they simply agreeing on Monotheism and loving God and neighbor properly as taught in the Law?

It's interesting to note that even Shabir Ally sees 1 Corinthians 8:6 as an expansion of Deuteronomy 6:4. 'God' and 'one Lord' appear in both and in the very same forms (from the Shema's LXX version - ALL are nominative, masculine singulars). One God and one Lord are synonymous titles of Deity that are only appropriate for the one Lord God of Israel. The title "one Lord" would have brought every devout Jew's mind to the Shema. Therefore the Father and Jesus ARE that one Divine Being of Deu. 6:4.

Some helpful videos:

'The oneness of the Trinity' : http://bit.ly/2aZKYaZ
'Why Matthew 28:19 must prove the Trinity' : http://bit.ly/2dF5NZj
'A Quick Way To Prove That the Holy Spirit is a Person' : http://bit.ly/2ee0j7T
'Good works are ALWAYS the RESULT of salvation' : http://bit.ly/2e9qOgs
'A Weird Way To Prove The Trinity' : http://bit.ly/2dE0ZFS
'Was Jesus the Commander of the LORD's Army? (Joshua 5:14)' : http://bit.ly/2dIqSoT

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