Why does Jesus say the Holy Spirit will ‘not speak of Himself; but whatever He hears, He will speak’ in John 16:13-15? This passage would make no sense if the Holy Spirit that Jesus referenced here is God the Father as God the Father. For it is impossible that the Father would not be able to “speak of Himself” but only what “He shall hear.”
Likewise, it would not be possible for an alleged non-Incarnate Trinitarian God the Holy Spirit to not be able to “speak of Himself,” but only what “He shall hear” from God. For if an alleged coequal God the Holy Spirit Person could not speak of Himself without having to hear from God, then that God Person could not be an omniscient coequally distinct Divine Person. Therefore it would be nonsensical for an alleged coequal God the Holy Spirit Person to not be able to speak for Himself because He would be fully omniscient as a true God Person.
This passage only makes sense in light of Oneness Theology. For the Spirit of Christ who was formed in the virgin, only speaks what He hears from the Father.
John 14:10 “The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own self (ematau – of myself), but the Father abiding in Me does His works.”
John 14:24 “… and the word which you hear is not Mine, but the Fathers’ who sent Me.”
John 5:30 “I can do NOTHING ON MY OWN SELF (ematau – of my own “SELF”), AS I HEAR, I judge …” Here we find that Jesus as a Son could do nothing on his own “self,” as he only spoke and did what he heard from the Father.
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