Bill Schlegel

If you find the content of the video helpful, consider subscribing. 
 
In this episode (Part 1 of a 2 part episode) we examine and comment on John 5, where Jesus healed a lame man at the Pools of Bethesda in Jerusalem. 
 
We focus on John 5:17-18: "And this was why the Judeans were persecuting Jesus, because he was doing these things on the Sabbath. 17But Jesus answered them, "My Father is working until now, and I am working." 18 This was why the Judeans were seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was also calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God." 
 
We show that the phrase "equal with God" is best understood in the biblical, Hebraic concept of "agency", an equality between the one sent and his sender. "The one sent is equal to his sender". 
 
The equality of the Messiah Jesus to God is as God's sent agent, not an equality of divine essence or nature. 
 
The Christology of the Gospel of John is not "incarnation" (God taking on flesh, or becoming human) but "agency", God being represented and granting His authority to His appointed human Messiah Jesus. 
 
The equality of the Messiah Jesus to God is as God's sent agent, not an equality of divine essence or nature. 
 
For full written text of this episode and episode 2, see here: 
 
https://landandbible.blogspot.com/2021/09/john-518-but-he-was-also-calling-god.html 
 
 
Other resources related to new creation in the Gospel of John mentioned in this podcast: 
 
· John 1:1, Jesus is the Beginning of God’s New Creation 
 
· More New Creation in the Gospel of John: Why John’s Prologue Should be Interpreted in the Context of New Creation 
 
· The Gospel of John, the Historical Context of the New Creation and New Testament Context

If you find the content of the video helpful, consider subscribing.

In this episode (Part 1 of a 2 part episode) we examine and comment on John 5, where Jesus healed a lame man at the Pools of Bethesda in Jerusalem.

We focus on John 5:17-18: "And this was why the Judeans were persecuting Jesus, because he was doing these things on the Sabbath. 17But Jesus answered them, "My Father is working until now, and I am working." 18 This was why the Judeans were seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was also calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God."

We show that the phrase "equal with God" is best understood in the biblical, Hebraic concept of "agency", an equality between the one sent and his sender.  "The one sent is equal to his sender".

The equality of the Messiah Jesus to God is as God's sent agent, not an equality of divine essence or nature.

The Christology of the Gospel of John is not "incarnation" (God taking on fl

Making himself Equal to God, Commentary on John 5:17-18

In all the greetings of the epistles in the New Testament, "God" is never the Trinity. God is only the Father. And the Father is the God of our Lord Jesus Christ. 
 
The Lord Jesus Christ is differentiated from God. The Lord Jesus Christ has a God. 
 
None of the apostles ever send greetings from the Trinity. None of the apostels ever send greetings from the holy spirit.

In all the greetings of the epistles in the New Testament, "God" is never the Trinity.  God is only the Father. And the Father is the God of our Lord Jesus Christ.

The Lord Jesus Christ is differentiated from God. The Lord Jesus Christ has a God.

None of the apostles ever send greetings from the Trinity. None of the apostels ever send greetings from the holy spirit.

Trinitarian, please explain 2 Corinthians 1:3...

1. How many persons are in the pronouns "I" and "myself"? 
יהוה YHVH the God of Israel says "I am יהוה ... I created everything by myself"? 
 
2. Can the Trinity speak, calling itself "I"? If so, how, since the Trinity is three persons. Does the Trinity change pronouns like modern confused gender persons? 
 
3. Which member of the Trinity, the "I" in this verse, is the creator of Israel, the heavens and the earth?

1. How many persons are in the pronouns "I" and "myself"?  
יהוה YHVH the God of Israel says "I am יהוה ... I created everything by myself"?

2. Can the Trinity speak, calling itself "I"? If so, how, since the Trinity is three persons. Does the Trinity change pronouns like modern confused gender persons?

3. Which member of the Trinity, the "I" in this verse, is the creator of Israel, the heavens and the earth?

Trinitarian, please explain Isaiah 44:24

The God of Israel states, as in the 10 Commandments in Exodus 20:2-3: 
 
"I am יהוה (the LORD) your God...you shall have no other god besides me". 
 
How many persons are in the pronoun "I"? 
 
How many persons are in the pronoun "me"? 
 
Why would a tri-personal god be referred to with a singular personal pronoun if they are more than one person? 
 
Which person brought Israel out of Egypt? 
 
Did Jesus teach that יהוה is more than one person?

The God of Israel states, as in the 10 Commandments in Exodus 20:2-3:

"I am יהוה (the LORD) your God...you shall have no other god besides me".

How many persons are in the pronoun "I"?

How many persons are in the pronoun "me"?

Why would a tri-personal god be referred to with a singular personal pronoun if they are more than one person?

Which person brought Israel out of Egypt?

Did Jesus teach that יהוה is more than one person?

Trinitarian, please explain Exodus 20:2-3.

The Apostle Paul declares in Athens that God will judge the world in righteousness by a man whom God has appointed, and that God has given assurance to all men of this by raising that man from the dead. 
 
Never do the apostles in the Book of Acts proclaim that Jesus is God, or a god-man, or that God is a Trinity. 
 
Instead, the Apostles proclaim that Jesus is a man, the Messiah, who was put to death, but was raised from the dead by God. The Apostles appeal to the Old Testament Scriptures as evidence of the suffering, death, and resurrection of the man Jesus of Nazareth, the Messiah. 
 
The apostles never appeal to the Old Testament Scriptures to show that Jesus is God, or a god-man, or that God is a Trinity. 
 
If Jesus were a god-man, or if God was a Trinity, why did the Apostles of Jesus never proclaim these things in their sermons as recorded in the Book of Acts?

The Apostle Paul declares in Athens that God will judge the world in righteousness by a man whom God has appointed, and that God has given assurance to all men of this by raising that man from the dead.

Never do the apostles in the Book of Acts proclaim that Jesus is God, or a god-man, or that God is a Trinity. 

Instead, the Apostles proclaim that Jesus is a man, the Messiah, who was put to death, but was raised from the dead by God. The Apostles appeal to the Old Testament Scriptures as evidence of the suffering, death, and resurrection of the man Jesus of Nazareth, the Messiah. 

The apostles never appeal to the Old Testament Scriptures to show that Jesus is God, or a god-man, or that God is a Trinity.

If Jesus were a god-man, or if God was a Trinity, why did the Apostles of Jesus never proclaim these things in their sermons as recorded in the Book of Acts?

Deity of Christ believer, please explain Acts 17:31

When Peter preached to the Gentile Cornelius, recorded in Acts 10:34-43, he said nothing about God being a Trinity, or Jesus being God or a God-man. 
 
Yet, the listeners heard and were saved! How could they be saved without believing that Jesus was God? 
 
In fact, in his preaching Peter differentiated between God (all of God) and Jesus at least five times in these verses. Jesus is the man, the Messiah (Christ) from Nazareth, but is not God. 
 
Why didn't Peter say that Jesus was God, but instead differentiated Jesus from God?

When Peter preached to the Gentile Cornelius, recorded in Acts 10:34-43, he said nothing about God being a Trinity, or Jesus being God or a God-man. 

Yet, the listeners heard and were saved! How could they be saved without believing that Jesus was God?

In fact, in his preaching Peter differentiated between God (all of God) and Jesus at least five times in these verses. Jesus is the man, the Messiah (Christ) from Nazareth, but is not God.

Why didn't Peter say that Jesus was God, but instead differentiated Jesus from God?

Deity of Christ believer, please explain Acts 10:38

In the first recorded sermon of the Apostle Peter after Jesus was raised from the dead and exalted to heaven, Peter says nothing about believing that God is a Trinity, or that Jesus is God. 
 
Rather, Peter insists that Jesus was a man attested by God by signs and mighty works that God did through him. Jesus was put to death, but raised from the dead by God. And God MADE Jesus both Lord and Christ. 
 
If Jesus was God, why wouldn't Peter say so in this sermon? And if Jesus is God, why would Peter ever say that God MADE Jesus Lord and Christ (Messiah)?

In the first recorded sermon of the Apostle Peter after Jesus was raised from the dead and exalted to heaven, Peter says nothing about believing that God is a Trinity, or that Jesus is God.

Rather, Peter insists that Jesus was a man attested by God by signs and mighty works that God did through him. Jesus was put to death, but raised from the dead by God. And God MADE Jesus both Lord and Christ.

If Jesus was God, why wouldn't Peter say so in this sermon? And if Jesus is God, why would Peter ever say that God MADE Jesus Lord and Christ (Messiah)?

Deity of Christ believer, please explain Acts 2:22 and 2:36

Many Christians who believe in the deity of Christ claim that the Gospel of John is one of the main books, if not the main book in the New Testament that says that Jesus is God. 
 
But this claim contradicts the purpose statement of the author of the Gospel. 
 
The author of the Gospel of John says he recorded the signs (miracles) that Jesus did so that "you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God..." 
 
Shouldn't the author know why he wrote his Gospel? Do deity of Christ believers know better than the author why he wrote his Gospel? 
 
For a fuller explanation of the purpose of the Gospel of John see here: 
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=fw44JRTIiV0 
 
and here: 
http://www.onegodreport.com/john_11_and_johns_gospel_podcasts

Many Christians who believe in the deity of Christ claim that the Gospel of John is one of the main books, if not the main book in the New Testament that says that Jesus is God.

But this claim contradicts the purpose statement of the author of the Gospel.

The author of the Gospel of John says he recorded the signs (miracles) that Jesus did so that "you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God..."

Shouldn't the author know why he wrote his Gospel? Do deity of Christ believers know better than the author why he wrote his Gospel?

For a fuller explanation of the purpose of the Gospel of John see here:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=fw44JRTIiV0

and here:
http://www.onegodreport.com/john_11_and_johns_gospel_podcasts

Deity of Christ believer, please explain John 20:30-31

The Lord Jesus Christ has a God. 
 
As recorded in the Gospel of John 20:17, soon after he was raised from the dead, Jesus told Mary Magdalene "...go to my brothers and say to them, 'I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.'" 
 
If Jesus is God, how can he have a God?

The Lord Jesus Christ has a God.

As recorded in the Gospel of John 20:17, soon after he was raised from the dead, Jesus told Mary Magdalene "...go to my brothers and say to them, 'I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.'"

If Jesus is God, how can he have a God?

Deity of Christ believer, please explain John 20:17

If you believe in the deity of Christ, can you explain 1 Timothy 2:4-5? 
 
The Apostle Paul wrote that the truth is that there is one God and one mediator between God and men, a man Christ Jesus. 
 
The apostle differentiated between God and Jesus the Christ. Christ Jesus is not God, but a man. 
 
If the Apostle Paul thought that Jesus had to be God or a God-man to atone for our sin, or to be our mediator, why would the apostle write that the one mediator between God and man is a man? 
 
This verse, and many others like it, is a clear statement that for the Apostle Paul, a man (not a God-man), Jesus the Messiah, was the true and sufficient mediator between God and man.

If you believe in the deity of Christ, can you explain 1 Timothy 2:4-5?

The Apostle Paul wrote that the truth is that there is one God and one mediator between God and men, a man Christ Jesus.

The apostle differentiated between God and Jesus the Christ. Christ Jesus is not God, but a man.

If the Apostle Paul thought that Jesus had to be God or a God-man to atone for our sin, or to be our mediator, why would the apostle write that the one mediator between God and man is a man?

This verse, and many others like it, is a clear statement that for the Apostle Paul, a man (not a God-man), Jesus the Messiah, was the true and sufficient mediator between God and man.

Deity of Christ believer, please explain 1 Timothy 2:4-5

"But you, O Bethlehem Ephrathah, being little among the clans of Judah, from you shall come forth for me one who is to be ruler in Israel, whose origin is from of old, from ancient days." 
 
וְאַתָּה בֵּית-לֶחֶם אֶפְרָתָה צָעִיר לִהְיוֹת בְּאַלְפֵי יְהוּדָה מִמְּךָ לִי יֵצֵא לִהְיוֹת מוֹשֵׁל בְּיִשְׂרָאֵל וּמוֹצָאֹתָיו מִקֶּדֶם מִימֵי עוֹלָם׃ 
 
A passage often remembered around Christmas time, Micah 5:2 is quoted in Matthew 2:5-6 to describe that Israel’s ruler would be born in Bethlehem. Some Christian expositors and laypersons see the “eternal pre-existence” of the Messiah and therefore Messiah’s deity in the words of Micah 5:2 (in Hebrew, Micah 5:1): “whose origin is from of old, from ancient days.” 
 
However, even just a comparison of English translations reveals that “eternality” in this passage is not so cut-and-dry. Some English translations of the use a word like “everlasting”, while others translate the same phrase as “from ancient days”. 
 
A word study and the context of the passages shows that neither Micah nor Matthew were declaring the “eternal pre-existence” of Messiah. Rather, the passages refer to the promise of God given to David centuries before. 
The “eternal pre-existence” and “deity of Christ” claims from Micah 5 are based on presuppositions that force a wrong understanding of Hebrew words. The words miqedem "from before" and mimei olam "from ancient days" do not mean “eternal pre-existence” but refer to events in Israel’s past. Specifically, Micah 5:2 refers to the promise God made to David long ago, centuries before Micah’s day. 
 
The “eternality” interpretation also ignores both the literary and historical context of the passage which speaks of a descendant of David who was to rule for Yahweh by the strength of Yahweh his God when the Assyrians came into the land. 
 
The “eternality” interpretation also misses the meaning of the passage. Micah is trusting completely on God’s promise of peace and salvation through a king who would descend from David. There was an amazing, observable sample of that promised victorious peace in David’s descendant Hezekiah (see Isaiah 37:15-38), a sample which gives us concrete evidence and confidence that Yawheh our God fulfills His promises. 
 
The ultimate fulfillment of God’s promise to David is in Jesus. In an even greater fashion than in the days of David or Hezekiah, Jesus the descendant of David will shepherd and rule God’s people for God in the strength of Yahweh his God, and in the majesty of the name of Yahweh his God. 
 
The Gospel of Matthew mentions nothing about the pre-existence of Jesus in quoting Micah’s passage. Neither Jesus nor any New Testament author ever appealed to the Old Testament to reveal the eternal pre-existence or deity of Messiah. Jesus and the New Testament authors did appeal to the Old Testament to show the suffering, death and subsequent glory of Messiah. 
 
For a full written text of the podcast see here: 
https://landandbible.blogspot.com/2019/02/micah-52-matthew-26-eternal-deity-of.html 
 
Bill Schlegel 
https://anchor.fm/onegodreport-podcast

"But you, O Bethlehem Ephrathah, being little among the clans of Judah, from you shall come forth for me one who is to be ruler in Israel, whose origin is from of old, from ancient days."

וְאַתָּה בֵּית-לֶחֶם אֶפְרָתָה צָעִיר לִהְיוֹת בְּאַלְפֵי יְהוּדָה מִמְּךָ לִי יֵצֵא לִהְיוֹת מוֹשֵׁל בְּיִשְׂרָאֵל וּמוֹצָאֹתָיו מִקֶּדֶם מִימֵי עוֹלָם׃

A passage often remembered around Christmas time, Micah 5:2 is quoted in Matthew 2:5-6 to describe that Israel’s ruler would be born in Bethlehem. Some Christian expositors and laypersons see the “eternal pre-existence” of the Messiah and therefore Messiah’s deity in the words of Micah 5:2 (in Hebrew, Micah 5:1): “whose origin is from of old, from ancient days.”

However, even just a comparison of English translations reveals that “eternality” in this passage is not so cut-and-dry. Some English translations of the use a word like “everlasting”, while others translate the same phrase as “from ancient days”.

A word study and the context of the passa

Eternal Deity of the Messiah? Micah 5:2 and Matthew 2:5-6

John 1:10 does not say that Jesus created planet earth. This episode is part 2 of our commentary on John 1:9-13. 
For a full written text of this episode, click here. 
 
https://landandbible.blogspot.com/2020/11/jesus-did-not-create-planet-earth.html 
 
The word translated "world" in John 1:9-10, the Greek word kosmos, does not mean planet earth. 
 
We can understand better what the author meant by kosmos, world, in John 1:10 by seeing the parallels in the next verse. Kosmos of verse 10 is parallel to “his own” in John 1:11, meaning the Jewish people and perhaps even specifically Jews who lived in the geographical region of Judea. The “kosmos that knew him not” in verse 10 is parallel to “his own people who received him not” in verse 11. 
 
The word “create” is nowhere in John’s Prologue. The kosmos was not created by Jesus, but rather it came to be through the man Jesus. The kosmos that came to be through Jesus is the new people of God, specifically those who are born of God and are the children of God as described in verses 12-13. 
 
The deity of Christ interpretation of John 1, and specifically of John 1:3 and 1:10, which claims that Jesus was the creator of all things and of the earth, is a direct contradiction to many other Scriptures that state clearly that the Creator of all things is the one God, Yahweh the God of Israel. See Gen. 1:1, Isaiah 37:16, 40:28, 42:5, 45:12, 45:18; Jer. 10:12, 27:5, Mal. 2:10; Psa. 8:3, 100:3, 102:25; Neh. 9:6; Matt. 19:4; Mark 10:6; Acts 17:24; Rev. 4:11, 10:6. 
 
The interpretation offered in this podcast episode is in complete agreement with other biblical revelation, that the One God, Yahweh, the God of Israel, the Father, is the Creator, and that as He, He alone, created the heavens and the earth and brought about human civilization through one individual human being (Adam, Noah, Abraham). Likewise, He, Yahweh, brings about the community known as the “children of God” which comes to be in the next age through the one man Jesus the Messiah. 1 Cor. 8:6: “yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all and through whom we exist. 
 
We can refer to the body of the Gospel of John to understand what the author means in the Prologue. The Prologue uses much metaphorical language, and the exact same metaphors, themes and language the author introduces in the Prologue he reiterates again in the Gospel, associating the language and themes of the Prologue to the man Jesus and his ministry. These parallels are evidence that John’s Prologue is not a commentary on the Genesis creation, but rather is an introduction to the new beginning in the man Jesus of Nazareth. It does the author of John’s Gospel great injustice to claim that his Prologue is not an introduction to the man Jesus of Nazareth, the Messiah. 
 
For a full written text of this episode, click here. 
 
https://landandbible.blogspot.com/2020/11/jesus-did-not-create-planet-earth.html

John 1:10 does not say that Jesus created planet earth.  This episode is part 2 of our commentary on John 1:9-13.
For a full written text of this episode, click here.

https://landandbible.blogspot.com/2020/11/jesus-did-not-create-planet-earth.html

The word translated "world" in John 1:9-10, the Greek word kosmos, does not mean planet earth.

We can understand better what the author meant by kosmos, world, in John 1:10 by seeing the parallels in the next verse. Kosmos of verse 10 is parallel to “his own” in John 1:11, meaning the Jewish people and perhaps even specifically Jews who lived in the geographical region of Judea. The “kosmos that knew him not” in verse 10 is parallel to “his own people who received him not” in verse 11.

The word “create” is nowhere in John’s Prologue. The kosmos was not created by Jesus, but rather it came to be through the man Jesus. The kosmos that came to be through Jesus is the new people of God, specifically those who are born of God and are the child

Jesus Did NOT Create Planet Earth, A Commentary on John 1:9-13, PART 2

This episode is part 1 of a two part commentary on the Gospel of John 1:9-13. 
 
This episode focuses on John 1:9, where we take a close look at what 'the world" (the Greek word "kosmos") means in the Bible in general and in the Gospel of John specifically. We also investigate what the Gospel of John means by the phrase "coming into the world". 
 
We must understand the figures of speech, idioms and metaphors in the Gospel of John if we are to understand the Gospel correctly. It was those in opposition to Jesus that especially misunderstood his figures of speech. John 10:6, “This figure of speech Jesus used with them, but they did not understand what he was saying to them.” 
 
The Greek word kosmos, although translated as “world” in John 1:9-10, does not mean planet earth. Rather kosmos means human society, or a segment of human society, specifically Jewish society. 
 
To go or “come into the kosmos, into the world” does not mean a person came from some heavenly or planetary realm into planet earth. To “come into the world” means to be a part of human society, to exist and be alive at a certain time and place. Everyone “comes into the world.” As fulfillment of God’s promise the Prophet of Deut. 18:15 “comes into the world” and the Messiah “comes into the world” (John 7:31, 11:27). 
- 
 
The man Jesus of Nazareth, the Messiah is the light who “came into the world.” This is made clear by the author both in the Prologue (the Baptizer was not the light) and in the body of the Gospel. Jesus said, “I have come as light into the world” (John 12:46, 3:19). 
 
For a full written text of this episode, click here. 
 
https://landandbible.blogspot.com/2020/11/jesus-did-not-create-planet-earth.html

This episode is part 1 of a two part commentary on the Gospel of John 1:9-13.

This episode focuses on John 1:9, where we take a close look at what 'the world" (the Greek word "kosmos") means in the Bible in general and in the Gospel of John specifically. We also investigate what the Gospel of John means by the phrase "coming into the world".

We must understand the figures of speech, idioms and metaphors in the Gospel of John if we are to understand the Gospel correctly. It was those in opposition to Jesus that especially misunderstood his figures of speech. John 10:6, “This figure of speech Jesus used with them, but they did not understand what he was saying to them.”

The Greek word kosmos, although translated as “world” in John 1:9-10, does not mean planet earth. Rather kosmos means human society, or a segment of human society, specifically Jewish society.

To go or “come into the kosmos, into the world” does not mean a person came from some heavenly or planetary realm into planet 

Jesus Did Not Create Planet Earth, A Commentary on John 1:9-13

There are two places in Scripture, both in the book of John, to which people go to claim that Jesus raised himself from the dead. The claim is that if Jesus could raise himself from the dead, he must be God. Or, because Jesus is God, he could raise himself from the dead. 
 
There are big problems with the interpretation that Jesus raised himself from the dead. In this podcast I break the problems into two categories: 
 
1. Biblical interpretation methodology (hermeneutics). The biggest problem from the perspective of biblical interpretation methodology is that the claim that Jesus raised himself from the dead contradicts a multitude of other Scriptures. The claim breaks one of the main rules of good biblical interpretation: “Interpret a less clear passage from the clear passage(s)”. 
 
2. Theological problems – besides directly contradicting a multitude of other Scriptures, the claim that Jesus raised himself from the dead does not theologically align with the Bible. God doesn’t die and the dead don’t raise themselves to life. 
- 
For full written text of the podcast, see https://landandbible.blogspot.com/2020/04/did-jesus-raise-himself-from-dead-john.html

There are two places in Scripture, both in the book of John, to which people go to claim that Jesus raised himself from the dead. The claim is that if Jesus could raise himself from the dead, he must be God. Or, because Jesus is God, he could raise himself from the dead.

There are big problems with the interpretation that Jesus raised himself from the dead.  In this podcast I break the problems into two categories:

1. Biblical interpretation methodology (hermeneutics). The biggest problem from the perspective of biblical interpretation methodology is that the claim that Jesus raised himself from the dead contradicts a multitude of other Scriptures. The claim breaks one of the main rules of good biblical interpretation: “Interpret a less clear passage from the clear passage(s)”.

2. Theological problems – besides directly contradicting a multitude of other Scriptures, the claim that Jesus raised himself from the dead does not theologically align with the Bible. God doesn’t die and the

Did Jesus Raise Himself from the Dead? John 2:18-22 and John 10:17-18, by Bill Schlegel

This episode is a continuation of our two-part study on chapter 1 of the Book of Hebrews. In the first episode we examined Hebrews 1:1-7. In this episode we examine Hebrews 1:8-14. For full summary notes to this podcast, see here. 
https://landandbible.blogspot.com/2020/04/hebrews-18-14-is-son-called-god-did.html 
 
We note that the word “saying”, or “he says” which appears in English translations in Hebrews 1:8 is not in the Greek original text. The speaker of the words quoted from Psalm 45 is not God, but the Psalmist. Adding “he says” or “saying” to Hebrews 1:8 makes it sound, incorrectly, that God is calling the Son, “God”. But the speaker at this point is not God. 
 
Hebrews 1:8-9 is a quote from Psalm 45, a marriage hymn of a king descended from David (perhaps Solomon?) to a what appears to be a foreign princess. The Davidic king has a God who has blessed him (45:2) and anointed him (45:7). The Davidic king is lauded for his strength and just rule (45:2-6). Part of the reason for lauding the king is to convince the princess that it will be worthwhile and a blessing to marry him. 
 
Most English translations translate the word “God” in the first part of the quote from Psalm 45 in Hebrews 1:8, as: 
“Your throne, O God, is forever and ever”, that is, taking the word “God” as a vocative, or as a direct address, understanding that in some way the king in Psalm 45 was called “God”, and by extension, that Jesus the Son was called God. 
 
But the “O” of “O God” is only interpretation. Grammatically it is possible, I think preferable, to translate Hebrews 1:8a as: 
 
“Your throne is God forever and ever”, 
 
or, 
 
“God is your throne for ever and ever.” 
 
That is, the word “God/Elohim” in the verse does not have to be understood as a vocative. 
 
For the rest of the summary notes to this podcast, click here. 
 
https://landandbible.blogspot.com/2020/04/hebrews-18-14-is-son-called-god-did.html

This episode is a continuation of our two-part study on chapter 1 of the Book of Hebrews. In the first episode we examined Hebrews 1:1-7. In this episode we examine Hebrews 1:8-14. For full summary notes to this podcast, see here.
https://landandbible.blogspot.com/2020/04/hebrews-18-14-is-son-called-god-did.html

We note that the word “saying”, or “he says” which appears in English translations in Hebrews 1:8 is not in the Greek original text. The speaker of the words quoted from Psalm 45 is not God, but the Psalmist. Adding “he says” or “saying” to Hebrews 1:8 makes it sound, incorrectly, that God is calling the Son, “God”. But the speaker at this point is not God.

Hebrews 1:8-9 is a quote from Psalm 45, a marriage hymn of a king descended from David (perhaps Solomon?) to a what appears to be a foreign princess. The Davidic king has a God who has blessed him (45:2) and anointed him (45:7). The Davidic king is lauded for his strength and just rule (45:2-6). Part of the reason for laud

Hebrews 1:8-14, Is the Son called God? Did Jesus create the heavens? (by Bill Schlegel)

To Trinitarians and those who believe in the “deity of Christ”, this verse is slam-dunk evidence that Jesus is God. 
 
But is it? I believe the “deity of Christ” interpretation ignores and contradicts Jesus’s teaching in the Gospel of John. There is a much better way to understand Thomas’s words. 
 
Which “God” did Thomas mean when he said “my God”? 
Full notes here: 
https://landandbible.blogspot.com/2019/12/my-lord-and-my-god-trinitarians-get-it.html

To Trinitarians and those who believe in the “deity of Christ”, this verse is slam-dunk evidence that Jesus is God.

But is it? I believe the “deity of Christ” interpretation ignores and contradicts Jesus’s teaching in the Gospel of John. There is a much better way to understand Thomas’s words.

Which “God” did Thomas mean when he said “my God”?
Full notes here:
https://landandbible.blogspot.com/2019/12/my-lord-and-my-god-trinitarians-get-it.html

My Lord and my God, Trinitarians get it Wrong, John 20:28 (by Bill Schlegel)

To see written notes for this episode, including additional biblical references, see here. 
https://landandbible.blogspot.com/2020/02/colossians-115-19-jesus-is-not-creator.html

To see written notes for this episode, including additional biblical references, see here.
https://landandbible.blogspot.com/2020/02/colossians-115-19-jesus-is-not-creator.html

Is Jesus the Creator in Colossians 1:15-19? No, but Jesus is the beginning of God's new creation.

When Jesus called God his Father, he was not making a claim to deity (an equality of essence). Rather, Jesus' equality with God should be understood in the Jewish and biblical  context of an equality of representative authority, encapsulated in the Hebraic proverb "The one sent is EQUAL to his sender." This lecture examining John chapter 5 was given at the Theological Conference sponsored by Restoration Fellowship in April 2019.

Bill Schlegel Videos